As for now, go ahead and answer this new question I have first, then go back and re-read that other post and give an answer to that later. So here's my new question:
Now just from using common sense, if someone has chronic major depression in which those glucocorticoids are uncontrolled (in other words, the hypothalamus has failed in terms of regulating the glucocorticoids) and they are overworking and overworking a vast number of those pleasure neurons to death, wouldn't that mean that the rate of activity that the failing hypothalamus is using (gaining) in an attempt to regulate (stop) the glucocorticoids is less than the rate of loss of pleasure activity due to the glucocorticoids overworking and overworking a vast number of those pleasure neurons to death during chronic major depression (since the failing hypothalamus is using less activity in trying to stop the glucocorticoids)? Again, just from using common sense, wouldn't the loss of pleasure activity be greater?
Again, just a simple answer “yes, it does,” or “no, it does not work that way and we don't even know if there are moments (brief, a second or less or more or even for longer periods) during chronic major depression where the rate of loss of pleasure activity just due to the glucocorticoids overworking and overworking those pleasure neurons to death is greater than the rate of activity that the failing hypothalamus gains in an attempt to stop the glucocorticoids.” Again, you can just give a simple answer—you don't have to explain anything, but you can if you want.